Question:

Some of the Islamic Centres in Britain are permitting the NHS to utilise some of the halls or spaces of the centre in organising the vaccination of the residents against Coronavirus. Due to this, discussions and differing is occurring between the committee of the centre and the general attendees with regards to the correct position in this matter, particularly with the doubts surrounding the safety of the vaccine, its usefulness, its results and its effectiveness. So what is the religious advice regarding this matter?

The answer:

All praise belongs to Allāh, The Lord of the Worlds, and may peace and blessing be upon the seal of the prophets and messengers.

To proceed:

In regards to this issue, it is obligatory to differentiate; between affirmed facts and doubts and suspicions; between knowledge based on certainty or overwhelming presumptions achieved through our senses, evidence-based studies and trials, and between mere personal opinions.

Firstly

We have come to know of the existence of this virus through reports, sense, observation and experience; and that serious illness occurs because of it. We know in a direct and personal way that hundreds of relatives, friends, acquaintances, and known people have been infected by this germ; and subsequently became critically ill with a large number of them passing away. Hence, everyone who has witnessed or heard of what those afflicted suffered from and the debilitating symptoms that manifested on them, whether they died or recovered, will know with certainty that this epidemic is not similar to the seasonal influenza, not in its strength, its symptoms or its harms and risks.

Thus this degree of established reality, and concrete fact; he who refutes it or debates about it, with doubts or suspicions is afflicted with psychiatric or mental disturbances and he needs care and treatment.

Secondly:

Taking vaccination against this disease, is an upright matter legally (Islamic), intellectually and proven experimentally. International corporations hastened to manufacture more than one type of vaccine. This occurred in countries with differing intellectual, political and social systems, from China to Russia, Britain, the European Union and USA. Thousands of experienced researchers worked on these trials and amongst them are a large number of Muslims from different countries and nationalities. The health ministries of most of the countries of the world have also relied on these vaccinations after the approval of the vaccinations by its experts and advisors. These experts are made up of hundreds of specialists, who specialise in this matter and are trusted for their specialism and professionalism. The very least that can be derived from all of this combined, is that there is a strong overwhelming presumption of the importance in taking the vaccination, reinforcing its usefulness, benefits and its safety from harm and risk. Also, the sound mind dictates that it is not possible that such a large number of people become complicit in lies, fraud and deceit. This knowledge or strong overwhelming presumption isn’t tarnished by the disagreement of some of the specialists in medicine or epidemics due to the consensus of the rest. This is because, these are a few individuals who – in number – do not exceed 1% of their counterparts.

This is in agreement with the Usool of the Shari’a that the people of knowledge and understanding are aware of. Ibn Qayyim, may Allāh have mercy upon him, said in «الطرق الحكمية» : “ The Shari’a does not refute truth, belie evidence or invalidate clear signs. Allāh ﷻ has commanded us to verify and clarify the statement of the Faasiq (the evil doer) and hasn’t commanded us to reject it in totality because the statement of the disbeliever and evil doer might be reinforced with honest evidence, hence accepting it and acting upon it becomes obligatory. The prophet ﷺ hired a guide who was a polytheist – upon the religion of his people – for his migration journey. Even though this was the case, the prophet  ﷺ still trusted him and paid him his wage. Hence, it’s not allowed for a ruler to reject the truth after it has been clarified and the evidence in support of the statements of an individual has become apparent”.

It might be that the hearts of some of the people are not reassured by the likes of this, they are thus free to avoid taking the vaccine and it is within their right to express their opinion, but without transgressing on the others with doubts and accusations or propagating conspiracy theories. Especially if he is ignorant of the medical and pharmaceutical sciences, diseases and epidemics. His statement is then the speech of one who is engaging in that which he has no knowledge of. He falls under the general meaning of the statement of Allāh ﷻ: 

{وَلَا تَقْفُ مَا لَيْسَ لَكَ بِهِ عِلْمٌ إِنَّ السَّمْعَ وَالْبَصَرَ وَالْفُؤَادَ كُلُّ أُولَئِكَ كَانَ عَنْهُ مَسْئُولًا}.

And follow not (say not) that of which you have no knowledge. Verily! The hearing, and the sight, and the heart, of each of those one will be questioned (by Allāh). (Al-Israa: 36)

This is why we have seen that the people of knowledge and understanding – in the religion – (The Scholars), have left the matter regarding this crisis to the people of specialism and therefore have not challenged the health safety measures, nor have they prohibited the taking of the vaccination or spread false accusations and gossip increasing anxiety and distress in the people.

Thus, if this is understood, then what some of the Islamic centres are doing in cooperating with the health authorities in facilitating vaccination for the population; has no legal prohibition, is beneficial for the Muslims, and is an acceptable issue based upon reason and reality. All of this has been established through knowledge based on certainty or strong overwhelming presumption. As for the one who has a different opinion, then within his right is to avoid this matter. However, he has no right to falsely accuse his brothers and spread mischief and division between the Muslims and their Mosques and Islamic Centres.

Shaykh Abd Al-Haqq At-Turkmani

Leicester, Saturday 7th of Ash-Sha’ban 1442H / 20th of March 2021

Question:

The masjid in our area pray the ‘Isha salāh at 10:30pm i.e. 1 hour and 30 minutes after sunset, whilst other masājid pray at a much later time. Can you explain when the time of ‘Isha begins and whether the salāh of the person who prays 1 hour and 30 minutes after sunset is valid?

Answer:

All praise is due to Allah.

It is well known amongst many, that in countries located in the northern hemisphere at 48 degrees latitude or more, observing the sign which determines the beginning time of the ‘Isha salāh becomes very difficult. This sign is the disappearance of the red twilight in the sky. This issue of not being able to observe the disappearance of the red twilight persists in the summer months, from the end of May up until the beginning of August. It is either the case that the red twilight does not disappear or it is very difficult to precisely determine its disappearance. So what do we do in such circumstances?

Other scholars will choose to follow calculations based on astronomy, the most well-known and reliable of which is ISNA (Islamic Society of North America). Based on the calculations this organisation uses, the beginning time of ‘Isha salāh will be delayed 2 hours to 2 hours and 30 minutes after sunset. This is irrespective of whether we can observe and distinguish the disappearance of the red twilight or not.

Another option held by scholars is to calculate the beginning time of ‘Isha based on the timings of the nearest country that can observe the disappearance of the red twilight. 

The points mentioned above are all ijtihādāt (attempts to reach the correct conclusion) and so if one decides to pray the ‘Isha salāh 1 hour and 30 minutes after sunset or even later than that, there is no problem with this and their salāh is valid.

One last point to mention is that some scholars also say it is permissible to combine between Maghrib and ‘Isha due to the sign of ‘Isha entering not being present in the summer months. It is permissible for Muslims to take this fatwa to relieve themselves of any hardship during these months. This is because a person will have to wake up early for fajr and then also wake up early for work in the morning. In such a case, one may combine Maghrib and ‘Isha, go to sleep and thereafter wake up for the Fajr salāh. So he prays Maghrib and follows it up with ‘Isha immediately and wakes up for Fajr later on. However, it must be noted that it is not permissible to impose this opinion on the general masses in the masājid and to make them combine between the Maghrib and ‘Isha salāh, since there are different opinions on this issue and there are many Muslims who do not find any hardship in praying the ‘Isha salāh at a later time and thereafter waking up for Fajr.

So as you can see, the matter is broad and these are all ijtihādāt and if you pray in [any] masjid then your salaah is valid in shā Allah. 

And all praise is due to Allah, Lord of the ‘Ālamīn.

Transcript of Sheikh Abd al-Haqq Turkmāni’s answer

27 May 2024 | 19 Dhul-Qa’dah 1445

Question:

If a person began working 2 years ago and didn’t pay any zakāh during that period and he believes his savings exceeded the nisāb (threshold in which zakāh becomes due) after the first year but their balance is now lower than the first year due to purchases and debts, how should he calculate the zakāh that is due? Also, how should he pay the zakāh and from which date should the zakāh calculation begin? Lastly, are student loans factored into the zakāh calculation?

Answer:

All praise is due to Allah.

The first thing to clarify is that the calculation is based on Islamic months and not according to the Gregorian calendar. 

As for year 1, you can calculate by reviewing receipts and using bank statements. You would use a reasonable estimation to the extent where you are confident that you have freed yourself from any obligations in front of Allah.

It goes without saying that zakāh is a debt upon the Muslim and it is the right of Allah. The obligation to pay this debt doesn’t leave the Muslim at all even if the person delayed it for 10 years. This right of Allah remains and it is obligatory that the person fulfills this right. How should it be fulfilled? The way to do so is by making a best estimate by going back to your accounts. Make sure to remember not to mix 2 years into 1. The calculation for year 1 must be calculated independent of anything in the second year.

Then, in the second year, if the money you have saved has reduced, then you will pay zakāh depending on what you have present currently in the second year without worrying about the money you had in the first year. 

As for debts, whether they are student loans or other than that, then the correct opinion is that debts do not prevent a person from having to pay zakāh. This is the opinion of the shafi’i school of thought and appears to be the more correct opinion. The reason for this is because the money is in your hands and under your control and as such you would need to pay zakāh.

If you want to repay the debt prior to the time of zakāh becoming due, then you are free to do so. You can repay the debt and no zakāh would be due as a result because the money is no longer deemed to be in your hands or under your control. However, if you choose to hold onto the money and maintain control of it, you are not permitted to say “I have debts and so I don’t have to pay zakāh”. If you have a debt, then you should repay with the money that you currently have and not choose to save it.

And Allah knows best.

And all praise is due to Allah, Lord of the ‘Ālamīn.

Transcript of Sheikh Abd al-Haqq Turkmāni’s answer

27 May 2024 | 19 Dhul-Qa’dah 1445

Question:

What is the ruling on an individual who broke their fast intentionally even if this happened 5 years ago? Likewise what about a person who ate or drank publicly during the daytime of Ramadhān? Does this person have to pay an expiation or make up those missed days? Kindly provide me with a detailed answer.

Answer:

All praise is due to Allah.

Breaking the fast intentionally during the daytime of Ramadhān without a valid reason is a great sin and a major sin among the major sins in Islām. There is no doubt that fasting Ramadhān is a pillar from the pillars of Islam and a clear obligation. 

A person who breaks their fast on purpose does so either due to laziness/weakness/desires, or due to seeing it as a permissible act (going against the ruling of Allah)

One who finds himself in this position has in reality left the fold of Islām and must re-enter Islām by uttering the shahādah and making a sincere repentance.

For such a person, there is no repayment of fasting due, as they weren’t classed as a Muslim at the time. 

As for the other category, the one who breaks the fast on purpose without a valid reason but out of laziness or desire, then this person is a sinful Muslim. What is obligatory on them is to make up the fast after having repented, regretted, and made a firm resolution not to return to this major sin again. After having repented, the person makes up the fast to free themselves from the sin they fell into of breaking the fast.

As for expiation, then this is not due as expiation has only been legislated in one specific scenario which is for the one who breaks their fast during the daytime of Ramadhān due to intercourse. As for breaking the fast by eating/drinking or not fasting at all in the first place, then the only obligation is to make up the fast.

The questioner mentioned 5 years ago. It is important to note that whether 5 years or a long period of time has passed, this is the right of Allah and it must be repaid whatever the case.

Allah knows best. 

And all praise is due to Allah.

Transcript of Sheikh Abd al-Haqq Turkmāni’s answer

27 May 2024 | 19 Dhul-Qa’dah 1445

Question

What is the ruling on buying/selling gold and silver on the internet if it is the case that the person pays for the gold/silver but then receives the gold/silver after a period of time such as 24 hours later?All praise is due to Allah.  

Answer

This type of transaction is not allowed. The reason for this is that one of the conditions when buying/selling gold or silver is that the exchange must occur in the same gathering. This means that the buyer gives the money and the seller gives the gold/silver in the same gathering. It is as the Prophet ﷺ said “…hand to hand”. The completion of this exchange is not allowed to be delayed a day or 2 days.

When buying and selling online, this condition is not fulfilled. An individual will purchase some gold/silver online and the money leaves their account. This part is correct and would be treated as having fulfilled the first part of the exchange; passing over payment from the buyer to the seller. However, what remains is the second part of the exchange which is the buyer acquiring and gaining possession of the gold/silver that they have paid for.  As mentioned, with gold/silver this must be received in the same gathering which is not the case here, thereby nullifying the contract. 

A solution to this is to use online platforms as a way to enquire, state your interest, or reserve the gold without actually buying it. A person can say to the company “I want to buy a particular amount of gold/silver and if you come to me with it [or I come to you] then I will buy it in person either via cash or bank transfer”. 

All the transactions found online in relation to gold/silver that are being carried out in line with what was mentioned in the question are not correct and it is not allowed for a Muslim to partake in them. 

Allah knows best. 

And all praise is due to Allah Lord of the Ālamīn. 

Transcript of Sheikh Abd al-Haqq Turkmāni’s answer

27 May 2024 | 19 Dhul-Qa’dah 1445

Question

What is the ruling on buying/selling gold and silver on the internet if it is the case that the person pays for the gold/silver but then receives the gold/silver after a period of time such as 24 hours later?

Answer

All praise is due to Allah.  

This type of transaction is not allowed. The reason for this is that one of the conditions when buying/selling gold or silver is that the exchange must occur in the same gathering. This means that the buyer gives the money and the seller gives the gold/silver in the same gathering. It is as the Prophet ﷺ said “…hand to hand”. The completion of this exchange is not allowed to be delayed a day or 2 days.

When buying and selling online, this condition is not fulfilled. An individual will purchase some gold/silver online and the money leaves their account. This part is correct and would be treated as having fulfilled the first part of the exchange; passing over payment from the buyer to the seller. However, what remains is the second part of the exchange which is the buyer acquiring and gaining possession of the gold/silver that they have paid for.  As mentioned, with gold/silver this must be received in the same gathering which is not the case here, thereby nullifying the contract. 

A solution to this is to use online platforms as a way to enquire, state your interest, or reserve the gold without actually buying it. A person can say to the company “I want to buy a particular amount of gold/silver and if you come to me with it [or I come to you] then I will buy it in person either via cash or bank transfer”. 

All the transactions found online in relation to gold/silver that are being carried out in line with what was mentioned in the question are not correct and it is not allowed for a Muslim to partake in them. 

Allah knows best. 

And all praise is due to Allah Lord of the Ālamīn. 

Transcript of Sheikh Abd al-Haqq Turkmāni’s answer

27 May 2024 | 19 Dhul-Qa’dah 1445

Question

A brother has approached me with the intention of marriage and wants to speak to my wali (male guardian). However, my father had a stroke when I was younger and he can’t speak properly and struggles to understand many things except with great difficulty. Is it allowed for this brother to speak to my uncle instead of my father and ask for permission to get to know me more?

Answer

All praise is due to Allah. 

It is correct that the paternal uncle is from the male guardians of a woman in Islām. However, what is better and more correct in this situation is to follow the order of authority given to the male guardians.

If your grandfather (father’s father) is alive then he is more deserving of your paternal uncle to fill the position of your father. In the case that he is not alive, then the next most deserving to be your guardian is your full brother. If you have no full brothers then your parental uncle would be the next most deserving to fill the position of being your male guardian.

So to conclude, if a person’s father is in a difficult health situation and is unable to carry out this important responsibility of being a guardian, then the grandfather or the full brother or if they’re unavailable then the paternal uncle may carry out this duty. 

We ask Allah to give you success. 

Allah knows best. 

And all praise is due to Allah Lord of the Ālamīn. 

Transcript of Sheikh Abd al-Haqq Turkmāni’s answer

27 May 2024 | 19 Dhul-Qa’dah 1445

Question

One of the sisters asked, “Is it permissible to study medicine in a mixed university without taking any interest-based loans if there is no desire from the woman to engage in free mixing, whilst it is also mandatory for her to wear pants and touching the opposite gender as part of her studies?”

Answer

All praise belongs to Allah Lord of the Ālamīn.

As for the question regarding wearing pants, then we will say regarding this matter to not take any concessions regarding it. Rather, strive to wear on top of these pants a jilbaab, which is wide and covers you in a way that doesn’t describe the body features by being too tight. There is no problem with her wearing pants under her jilbaab or thobe. However, do not wear pants in a way that you will appear to the people in it or it describes to the people your body features or is tight on you. So, it is incumbent upon her to not take any concession regarding this, rather it is obligatory upon her to abide by the well-known shariah rulings regarding clothing. 

As for the issue of touching the opposite gender during studies,  what was said about the free mixing is also mentioned here, a concession is taken in accordance to the need. Also, I advise this woman to try and specialise in a sector that caters to women so that she may distance herself from free mixing and cater towards the Muslim woman and the Muslim women would, in turn, benefit from the availability of this Muslim female doctor and would then not go to the male doctors.

I ask Allah to grant success to everyone to please Him and Allah knows best.

And all praise is due to Allah, Lord of the ‘Ālamīn.

Transcript of Sheikh Abd al-Haqq Turkmāni’s answer

Question

Can I give my Udhiyah (Qurbāni) to Gaza [or any other country for that matter]?

Answer

All praise is due to Allah.

First thing to point out is that Udhiyah (sacrificing an animal on Eid al-Adha) is an act of worship done sincerely for Allah and is from the most important acts of worship someone can engage in. It is from the symbols of the religion and the objective behind it is to get closer to Allah through it. It is like the salāh in that it is an act of worship done sincerely for Allah. It has been paired with the salāh in the Qur’an in a few places such as:

Therefore turn in prayer to your Lord and sacrifice (to Him only). [108:2]

Say (O Muhammad SAW): “Verily, my Salat (prayer), my sacrifice, my living, and my dying are for Allah, the Lord of the ‘Alamin (mankind, jinns and all that exists). [6:162]

Sacrificing an animal to get closer to Allah is one of the ways to demonstrate servitude to Him. That is why sacrificing for [the purpose of getting closer to] other than Allah is major shirk. This is important to mention and is contrary to what many of the Muslims think is the objective behind the Udhiyah. They do mention that it is an act of worship and that it is a symbol of the religion and is done sincerely for Allah. However, they think that the main reason behind its legislation during the days of Eid is to benefit the poor, feed the needy, and to cause happiness on the day of Eid. This is wrong and those aforementioned things are merely the fruits or benefits of establishing servitude to Allah through this action. We sacrifice out of worship and establish it because establishing it is a symbol of servitude to Allah.

It may be the case that the needy and those around us may benefit from the meat and it may be the case that they don’t benefit from the meat at all. This is due to the fact that there may not be any people who are in need of the meat. What do we do in that instance? Do we leave off the Udhiyah [due to there being no needy people]? 

Imagine if a doctor prohibited a Muslim from eating meat and then at the time of Eid, this individual sacrificed an animal while being unable to eat it and also there not being any needy people around to distribute the meat to. Do we say that he should leave off the Udhiyah or do we say go ahead and still perform it? We would say perform the Udhiyah. Some may say that nobody is going to eat the meat. However, what is important here is sacrificing the animal for the sake of Allah because this is the core objective behind this act of worship. After this, the needy may benefit and this is something good and from the benefits of the action. And it may also be the case that those in need do not benefit. This is an important matter to clarify before answering the question that was posed.

The second matter to clarify is that the default for the Udhiyah is that a person performs the sacrifice in the place he resides either by himself or by placing someone as an agent to sacrifice on his behalf and that it is done in his locality so that he can eat from the meat because the sunnah of the Prophet ﷺ is that a person eats from the meat he has sacrificed. 

However, if the question is regarding a scenario where you don’t appoint someone to act as an agent on your behalf but rather you send money abroad to Gaza then this is allowed in the sense that you are supporting them with your money but this isn’t classed as a Udhiyah for you. As such, you will be deprived of the reward of the Udhiyah on the day of Eid and the money you have sent will be a sadaqah that we hope is accepted and you are rewarded for. It is classed as a normal sadaqah you have given but not Udhiyah. 

As for Udhiyah, we mentioned earlier that it is not a sadaqah but rather a symbol of servitude to Allah and has a particular way of being performed. 

Lastly, the scholars differed on the ruling of Udhiyah. Is it obligatory or recommended? The majority of scholars are of the opinion that it’s recommended whilst the Hanafis scholars and also Ibn Taymiyyah hold the view that it is obligatory for the resident who has the ability to do so. This is because the Prophet ﷺ used to regularly perform the Udhiyah during Eid al-Adha. So a person shouldn’t deprive himself of such a reward. 

It may be difficult for us in these lands to perform it ourselves so there is no problem with appointing someone else to sacrifice on your behalf elsewhere. Then after that, those who are present there from family and friends and also those who are in need can benefit from the Udhiyah and this is a good action. 

We ask Allah to accept from us all. 

And Allah knows best.

All praise is due to Allah, Lord of the ‘Ālamīn.

Transcript of Sheikh Abd al-Haqq Turkmāni’s answer

29 Dhul-Qa’dah 1445 | 6 June 2024

Question

When doing Qurbani in the UK we would usually arrange this via a Butcher. When collecting the Qurbani you only receive the meat. The skin, fur and parts of the animal that is not consumed is not given to us and more than likely is left at the slaughterhouse and we have no knowledge what happens to it nor does the butcher. Is my Qurbani valid? Is it also permitted for me to arrange a qurbani of one animal such as a sheep on mine and my families behalf and do they fulfil the criteria of meeting the conditions of having performed a Qurbani?

Answer

All praise is due to Allah. 

It is permissible to have the butcher act as an agent on your behalf for the purpose of carrying out the Udhiyah, there is no problem with this. However, there are some matters that Muslims should be aware of when doing so.

1) When you go to the butcher to be an agent for you in terms of sacrificing the animal, you must pay for the meat up front and not after they slaughter it and bring it to you on the day of Eid. The purchase must be made prior to the slaughtering and based on them being an agent for you. 

2) The sacrifice must be done for you specifically. So the butcher [or the individual at the slaughterhouse] slaughters with your name and when he returns, he gives you the same meat as that which was slaughtered on your behalf. 

3) When the butcher cuts the animal, there are parts that are of no benefit [to us] and are either thrown away or taken away and benefited from by others such as the skin of the animal. There is no problem if they choose to either throw it away or use it in another capacity. If you are happy with this, then it is fine and would be classed as a donation on your part to them. 

4) There shouldn’t be a wage stipulated for the butcher from within the price of the Udhiyah but rather it must be separate. For example, if they say the price of the Udhiyah is £180, you would ask the butcher how much they would take [for the service]? Let’s say they said £20, then the total is £200. You would pay the money for your Udhiyah and then the butcher an amount of money that is known. It is not allowed to say for instance “Slaughter for me and I will pay £200” and the price of the butcher is included here [without knowing exactly how much]. Rather you must ask how much the Udhiyah is and then the wage of the butcher separately and then confirm you will pay the total amount for the Udhiyah and the butcher. 

As for the price of the Udhiyah then this must be given upfront whereas the wage of the butcher can be given at a later time such as when the animal has been slaughtered and the meat delivered. This is because the wage is not for the Udhiyah itself but rather his job/efforts so this amount may be deferred. However, the amount for the meat must be given beforehand so that the animal can be bought prior to being slaughtered on your behalf. 

As for your statement about whether or not the sacrifice is valid on behalf of yourself and your family, then yes because you’re the head of the family and these are your dependents within your family. The members of a family, one individual slaughters on their behalf such as how the Prophet ﷺ used to do whereby he would sacrifice on behalf of himself and his family. Every single one of them doesn’t need to perform their own Udhiyah but rather one will suffice for them all even if they are a large sized family. 

We ask Allah to accept from us all. 

And Allah knows best.

All praise is due to Allah, Lord of the ‘Ālamīn.

Transcript of Sheikh AbdulHaqq Turkmāni’s answer

29 Dhul-Qa’dah 1445 | 6 June 2024

Question

If I am going to pay a butcher/slaughterhouse for Qurbani in my locality and they carry out the Qurbani before I have performed my Eid Salat is this valid? I understand that the Muslim slaughterhouses in my locality perform their Eid salah at the earliest permitted time and I wouldn’t have performed my Eid salah until later. 

Answer

All praise is due to Allah. 

Yes, it is valid because what is understood from this question is that you placed the butcher as an agent to act on your behalf and carry out the Udhiyah. As such, the ruling of the timing is connected to him. If he prays his salāh, he is allowed to slaughter on behalf of himself and also those he is acting on behalf of. It isn’t necessary that you have also prayed because in regulating this condition there would be great difficulty especially if we are in different time zones. For example, if I am in England and I placed someone as an agent in Gaza to slaughter on my behalf, they pray 3/4 hours before us. What is important here is that they slaughter based on their timings after they pray. This also applies if the agent is in the same city as you because what we look at is the prayer of the agent. 

I will also clarify here once again as mentioned in previous answers, that you must buy the Udhiyah completely even if it is with a debt. So the purchase isn’t made after the slaughtering. 

So you must buy the meat in advance and also the slaughtering is done for you specifically.

We ask Allah to accept from us all. 

And Allah knows best.

All praise is due to Allah, Lord of the ‘Ālamīn.

Transcript of Sheikh AbdulHaqq Turkmāni’s answer

29 Dhul-Qa’dah 1445 | 6 June 2024

Question

Why does Allah not respond to my du’ā? I have been making du’ā persistently for a specific need which has yet to be fulfilled and I am starting to lose hope and motivation in making du’ā.

Answer

All praise is due to Allah.

Firstly, we must understand that du’ā is an act of worship. 

Allah says in the Qurān: “Your Lord has proclaimed, Call upon Me, I will respond to you. Surely those who are too proud to worship Me will enter Hell, fully humbled.” [40:60]

So, when a person makes du’ā to Allah, it is expected that they are doing so in a manner whereby they are consciously trying to draw nearer to Allah in a state of humility whilst asking for His grace. This is how a person should approach making du’ā to Allah. It should not be the case that attaining the particular need or request is our main goal and objective of making du’ā. Rather, one should see du’ā to be an act of worship, a means of drawing nearer to Allah and humbling themselves to Him, whilst expressing their weakness and dire need for His assistance out of complete love and glorification.

From the weakness of man is that they are hasty when making du’ā. A person may make du’ā to Allah and not see their du’ā being responded to directly, which may lead them to leaving the righteous act of making du’ā to Allah entirely. This is a big mistake to make. 

In fact, the Prophet ﷺ prohibited this and is narrated to have said “(The du’ā) of any one of you will be answered so long as he is not hasty in seeking a response and does not say, ‘I made to du’ā but I have not had a response.” 

Such a person falls into the mistake of thinking that they deserve to be given everything that they ask for in their du’ā. They forget that the main goal of making du’ā is to fulfill an act of worship. It could be the case that they are given their particular request, due to the grace and goodness of Allah. But it could also be the case that they are not given their particular request, due to the divine wisdom of Allah. In either case, they have engaged in a great act of worship by turning to Allah with sincerity in their du’ā.

For this reason, the Prophet ﷺ said “There is no Muslim who makes a dua which does not contain sin or the cutting of family ties, but that Allah will respond to him in one of three ways: Either Allah will quickly fulfill his supplication, or He will store it for him in the Hereafter, or He will divert an evil from him similar to it.” 

We learn from this that so long as the du’ā a person makes is permissible (i.e. free of any sin or transgression of others), Allah will respond accordingly in one of three ways. Either Allah will grant them their request directly in this world, or Allah will reserve the reward for them in the Ākhirah, which is better for them than having their request granted to them in this world, or an evil similar to it will be diverted and repelled from the person. A person may want to attain a particular job and will make du’ā to Allah to help him, but Allah will not respond by granting them their request, since He is the Most Wise and the Most Merciful and is aware of the harm that could come the persons way, if He grants them their request. Likewise, a person may want to marry a woman, engage in some business, or embark on a long journey and will thus make du’ā to Allah to grant them their request, upon which Allah chooses not. Thereafter, this very same person will come to discover years later, that the request which was not granted to them was actually good for them and will say, All Praise is due to Allah. For example, a person may be prevented from embarking on a journey, and thereafter come to know that the plane he was supposed to take crashed and that Allah saved him from that accident. This is just one example, but there are many others that relate to the different aspects of one’s life and their own personal experiences.

I conclude by advising the questioner to listen to the pieces of advice the scholars have given regarding the etiquette and manners required from a person when making du’ā. It is a must for every Muslim to learn these matters and seek knowledge by reading or listening, as it pertains to the wisdom of making du’ā and why Allah may not necessarily respond to a person’s du’ā directly. 

And all praise is due to Allah Lord of the Ālamīn. 

Transcript of Sheikh Abd al-Haqq Turkmāni’s answer

27 May 2024 | 19 Dhul-Qa’dah 1445

Question

A person had wudu then entered the bathroom to take a shower then whilst showering he touched his private part, is his wudu nullified or not? The questioner adds that what he knows is that touching the private part breaks the wudu if done with desire.

Answer

All praise is due to Allah. 

This is from the topics in which there is a well-known difference of opinion therein and this difference of opinion is between the major imams from the four madhabs and other than them. The well-known positions in this topic are four. 

The first position is of those that say that the wudu is nullified by touching the private part if done without a barrier, so if one was to touch his private part without a barrier then his wudu is invalidated in all cases. This is the position that is adopted by the majority of the scholars from the Maalikiyyah, Shafi’iyyah and the Hanabilah.

The second position is the opposite of the first, and it is that touching the private part without a barrier does not break the wudu at all. This is the position of the Hanafiyyah and some of the Maalikiyyah and Hanabilah and this was the position that Ibn Taymiyyah and Ibn Uthaymeen took.

The third position in this topic is to distinguish between touching done with desire and without desire, so the one who touches his private part with desire his wudu is nullified, as for the one who touches his private part without desire then his wudu is not nullified. This came in a narration from Imam Ahmad and Imam Malik and is found in some of the fatawa of Shaykh Ibn Uthaymeen رحمه الله تعالى.

As for the fourth view, then it is to interpret this as a way of recommendation. Meaning, that the command to make wudu for touching the private part is a command as a means of recommendation not by way of making it mandatory, and so the wudu is not nullified but it is recommended for the one who touches his private part to make wudu. This is a view found with the Maalikiyyah and the Hanabilah and was chosen by Shaykh al-Islam Ibn Taymiyyah. 

In conclusion, what is intended is that this topic is one in which there is a difference of opinion therein between the major Imams of the four schools of thought and other than them and the salaf differed in this topic due to the different understanding they had of the hadiths that were transmitted regarding this topic. As a result, there should be no refutation to be had in this topic. The person goes with what he has learnt and studied and so if he has studied and learnt the position where there is a distinguishment (the third position above) then there is no problem with that. [Likewise] if he sees that the wudu is nullified in all cases (the first position) then he doesn’t refute the one who doesn’t believe the wudu is nullified in all cases (the second position) which is the view of the Hanafiyyah and other than them from the Imams of the salaf and even from the Imams of Ahl al-Hadith. So this topic is one for which there is no refutation therein. If the person wants further detail, he searches through the books and studies them in a detailed manner and has the ability to understand how to strengthen between these views. 

And Allah knows best.

Transcript of Sheikh Abd al-Haqq Turkmāni’s answer

8 Dhul Hijjah 1445 I 14 June 2024

Question

The one who wants to perform Udhiyah, does he refrain from cutting his hair from the time of maghrib in his locality or is it dependent on the timing of Saudi Arabia for example?

Answer

All praise is due to Allah. 

There is no doubt that the Muslim is religiously obliged to perform the actions of the shari’ah based on the locality he resides in. 

So, the same way that he fasts based on the timings of his locality, starting the fast at dawn and breaking the fast at maghrib, all the other rulings follow the same principle in that they depend on the locality the person is in. As such, he isn’t expected to look at the timings of Makkah, or the country he originates from, or any other country for that matter.

Allah knows best. 

And all praise is due to Allah Lord of the Ālamīn.

Transcript of Sheikh AbdulHaqq Turkmāni’s answer

29 Dhul-Qa’dah 1445 | 6 June 2024